The question,
following the observation that UK real wages have fallen substantially, is “In
the traditional Keynesian story, stimulus lowers real wages through nominal
reflation. Is that the Keynesian view here? If so, why do
Keynesians believe that British real wages need to fall more than 8.5%?”
Actually I think this question has nothing especially to do
with the UK, and a great deal with Keynesian theory, or at least how Keynesian
theory is often taught. The problem in the UK and nearly everywhere else right
now is lack of aggregate demand, not the level of real wages. Why, asks Tyler,
are not more workers being hired if real wages are so low? Well low real wages
are having some effect – it is one factor behind the ‘productivity
puzzle’ that is widely discussed
in the UK. But when the problem is aggregate demand, low and declining real
wages will not ensure ‘full employment’. Firms may employ more labour, but
there is no reason to expect the labour market to clear.
I think what lies behind this question is the idea that
aggregate demand matters because
sticky wages are preventing the labour market clearing. So, to rephrase Tyler’s
question, falling UK real wages do not look very sticky, so where is the
problem? When I was studying macro, there were these debates about whether it
was sticky wages, or sticky prices, which underpinned Keynesian theory.
The answer I would give, at least at the zero lower bound
under inflation targeting, is neither. To get technical, imagine a toy model
with imperfectly competitive firms who set a constant mark-up on labour costs,
and a linear technology. Nominal wages could fall forever, but firms would cut prices
to match, so the real wage would not change. So the question is then whether
falling prices will raise aggregate demand. But why should they, particularly
if nominal interest rates are stuck at zero, and the central bank puts a lid on
expected inflation.
The price that is ‘wrong’ when aggregate demand is deficient
is the real interest rate. This is one area where New Keynesian theory has helped
sort out old Keynesian confusions. If falling wages and prices do nothing to
change real interest rates, then aggregate demand need not rise. And if
aggregate demand does not rise, unemployment can persist. But at the zero lower
bound, with a central bank mandated to target inflation (and a government
showing no signs of changing that mandate), the real interest rate cannot be
reduced. So expansionary fiscal policy is needed to raise demand, not lower
real wages. Or, in the case of the UK at the moment, contractionary fiscal policy
is currently reducing demand and therefore output.
