What do I mean by
this? Macroeconomists have many faults, but one clear positive is
that we think about systems as a whole rather than just one
particular component. One area where it is important to do this is in
thinking about what determines economy wide real wages. Take, for example, this
recent post
by the Flip Chart Rick. (His posts are brilliant and I try and read
every one, but unfortunately this one is too good an illustration of
the problem I have in mind.) He starts with this chart from the FT
that I reproduce below.
Why is the UK unique
in having a combination of negative real wage growth but positive GDP
growth? Now it just so happened that I had written a post
about this, explaining I thought pretty well the key reasons. But
Rick mentions none of these, but writes about a whole bunch of stuff
related to labour market structure and trade union power that I think
are largely irrelevant. I think he is making the same mistake that
people make when they say immigration reduces real wages, or that we
would all be better off if only unions were more powerful.
All these things are
important in influencing nominal wages, and perhaps the distribution
of wages between workers. But real wages also depend on prices, which
are set by domestic or overseas firms depending on where goods are
made. If nominal wages go up, prices are likely to go up.
So what do I think
accounts for the fall in real wages in the UK over the last decade?
We need to start with GDP per head rather than GDP: growth in the
latter has been boosted by immigration. Here is what has happened to
GDP per head over the last ten years.
GDP per head fell in
the recession, and then steadily but slowly recovered: the slowest
recovery in at least a century. To see how that is related to real
wages (using ONS average earnings divided by the CPI), which I call real consumer wages, we
first need to look at an intermediary measure: real product wages.
These are real wages divided by the price of UK output: the GDP
deflator.
This is an
interesting measure because its closely related to a simple identity relating GDP to labour income and profits. We can see that real product
wages have not changed very much over this period: the recession
mainly hit profits, or it created unemployment. (Real wages are wages
divided the number of workers, GDP per head is GDP divided by the
total population, which includes the unemployed.) But if we are comparing 2007 with 2015, real
product wages were as stagnant as GDP per head.
So why did real
consumer wages fall? That must be because consumer prices rose more
than output prices. There are two reasons why this happened in this
case: indirect taxes increased (remember the 2011 VAT hike), and a
large sterling depreciation during the GFC worked its way into higher
prices for imported goods. It is of course another depreciation after
the Brexit vote that is cutting real wages once again right now. As I
always try and stress, real GDP growth per head is not a good guide
to real income growth if the price of imported goods rise or the
price of UK goods sold overseas falls (what economists call a decline
in the UK’s terms of trade).
Real wage growth in
the UK has not been lousy because of lack of union power, immigrants
or higher profits, but because economic growth (properly measured)
has been stagnant, austerity included raising indirect taxes and we have now
had two large depreciations in sterling. [1] That is not to say that
these labour market factors are not important. At a macro level they
are important in keeping inflation low, which should have allowed a
more rapid expansion of GDP growth than we have actually had. That is
where fiscal austerity and Bank of England conservatism come in. At a
micro level labour market structure helps influence the distribution of earnings between
different labour groups. [2]
What I say about the
unimportance of profits is factually true for the UK over this
period, but it is not always the case. In the US and elsewhere we
have seen a gradual shift from wages to profits over the last few
decades. But even here it is not obvious that weak nominal wage
growth is the main cause, because in a competitive goods market lower
nominal wages should get passed on as lower prices. One explanation
that is attracting a lot of interest is the rise of superstar firms.
These firms make unusually high profits, or equivalently have low
labour costs, and if output is shifting towards these firms labour’s
share will fall. What these firms do with their profits then becomes
an important issue. More generally, it may be the case that
governments have become
too lax at breaking up monopolies, allowing a rise in the overall
degree of monopoly.
The consequence of
growing concentration, superstar firms and a rising share of profits
is that income derived from profit grows faster than income from
labour. I say derived from profit because I would include in this CEO
and financial sector pay, which in effect extracts
a proportion of profits from large firms. The net result is that most
of the proceeds of economic growth are going
to those at the top of the income distribution. But it would be good
if we could change that by making the goods market more competitive
and removing the incentive for CEOs to extract surplus from firms
[3], rather than by making the labour market less competitive.
Technical appendix
For those who are
lucky enough to have learnt economics using the Carlin and Soskice
text, this is a classic application of wage and price setting curves.
If workers become weaker, this shifts the wage setting curve towards
the (perfect competition) labour supply curve, reducing the
equilibrium real wage (unless the price setting curve is flat) but
increasing the equilibrium level of employment. An increase in the
degree of monopoly (the mark-up) shifts the price setting curve
further away from the perfect competition labour demand curve, which
reduces equilibrium employment as well as the real wage.
[1] One possible
caveat here is that low wage growth may have encouraged firms to use
more labour intensive production techniques, which has depressed
investment and productivity. But if we want to incentivise firms to
invest in more productive technology, increasing demand is a much
better method than increasing nominal wages.
[2] Another caveat. I'm not sure where the real wage data in the FT chart comes from, but the fall in UK real wages there is greater than you get by using the ONS average earnings data (which I have used), so it may be a different and more specific measure of real wages. In which cases labour market structure might be relevant in explaining that number, and I apologise to Rick in advance if that is what he had in mind.


