I’m surprised I do not see a diagram like this more often:
The black lines are familiar from any introductory macro
textbook. There is a labour supply curve. It is drawn such that a higher real
wage encourages more labour supply, but I will consider what happens if it is
vertical later. What I call the ‘unconstrained labour demand’ curve is what
firms would choose to do if (a) labour gets less productive as output increases
(which is why the curve slopes downward), and (b) firms can sell whatever they
like. This is the classical model, and you will find this diagram in nearly
every introductory textbook. With flexible wages the level of employment is
determined at the intersection of the two curves, and we could call it the
‘natural’ employment level.
However (b) is a fiction. No (surviving) firm produces what it
wants to, irrespective of whether people want to buy its product. Aggregate
demand can diverge from the level of output implied by the intersection of the
two black curves for all kinds of reasons: Says Law does not hold. For
simplicity, suppose the aggregate demand for goods in the economy is
independent of the real wage, and there is no factor substitution. In that case
employment is determined by my red line - it is determined only by aggregate
demand. This is pretty clear in the case that I have drawn, where we have
deficient aggregate demand. Firms produce what they can sell: they would like
to sell more, but there is no point producing more if no one wants to buy more.
It is less clear what happens if the red line shifts right
until we have excess aggregate demand. If the number of firms is fixed, why
would they produce more than they want to - i.e. at a level where they are
losing money on the extra products they are producing? In New Keynesian models
where firms are monopolistic and prices are sticky they will produce more if
excess demand is modest, because for given prices it is profitable to produce
more up to some limit. But will firms be prepared to pay higher (e.g. overtime)
wages to workers for long, or will workers be prepared to work more for
unchanged wages for long? I will come back to this at the end.
If there is deficient demand, is there anything that makes the
red line move right to achieve the natural employment level? With deficient
demand, prices may tend to fall, but that alone is unlikely to shift the red
line to the right: few people talk about Pigou effects anymore, and the general concern
is that deflation is deflationary because the real value of debt has increased.
It is monetary policy that shifts the red line
in the required direction, either because it responds to falling prices or
because it wants to reduce the output gap. Ironically, Real Business Cycle
models, which assume the red line is always at the natural employment level,
only make sense in a world where monetary policy is very efficient. However,
monetary policy does normally work over the medium term, which is why the
classical or RBC model makes sense if we are just doing medium/long term
analysis.
What happens to the real wage? In the most basic of New
Keynesian models, the labour market clears, which means real wages fall until
the labour supply curve intersects the red line. (Here a vertical supply curve
would be a problem.) If, in contrast, real wages were sticky, we would get
involuntary unemployment - rationing in the labour market. Which is true
matters a great deal to those unemployed, but it terms of modelling deviations
from the natural rate the difference is not that great. Real wages have no
direct impact on aggregate demand, and so all that might happen is that
monetary policy could be influenced one way or the other. If it is not, what
happens to real wages is irrelevant to the basic problem, which is deficient
aggregate demand. This is one reason why New Keynesian economists may be happy
to work with a model where the labour market clears, but there may be other reasons.
The vertical red line assumes no factor substitution. With
factor substitution it can become downward sloping: falling real wages lead
firms to substitute labour for capital, which can increase employment even if
output is unchanged because aggregate demand is unchanged. As I speculate in
this post, based on the work of Pessoa and Van Reenen, something like
this could help explain the current UK productivity puzzle. If this speculation
is correct, at some point as aggregate demand and investment expands real wages
will rise, and labour productivity will increase as factor substitution is
reversed.
I was prompted to write this post by this from Noah Smith, which in turn comments
on a post by John Quiggin. (See also Mike Konczal and Nick
Rowe.) They talk about models of labour market matching, which I have not
mentioned, but similar considerations apply with matching models taking the
place of the classical model (although there are key differences between the
two). This gives me another chance to plug an AER paper by Pascal Michaillat, which addresses
the possible asymmetry that may occur when we have excess demand. Michaillat’s
model is a matching model when aggregate demand is strong, but a rationing
model (with Keynesian involuntary unemployment) when aggregate demand is low.
This is one, rather interesting, answer to the question I asked above about
possible asymmetry. Putting matching together with Keynesian rationing is
complicated, but if Michaillat’s paper is ignored just for this reason, that
says something rather sad about current macro methodology.