Ben Chu has a good
article
disposing of some of the nonsense ideas associated with austerity
(which refuse to die, because they are useful to politicians, and
much of the media is generally clueless). Perhaps the most silly,
which I encounter a lot, is that the UK has not really endured
austerity because debt has been increasing, or some other irrelevant
measure has been rising.
If trying to reduce
the deficit - what economists call fiscal consolidation - had no
adverse effects on the economy as a whole it would not be called
austerity. Austerity is all about the negative aggregate impact on
output that a fiscal consolidation can have. As a result, the
appropriate measure of austerity is a measure of that impact. So it
is not the level of government spending or taxes that matter, but how
they change.
An obvious measure
to use is the change in the deficit itself, generally adjusted for
changes that happen automatically because output is changing. I have
used that measure many times, because it is produced by the OBR, IMF
and OECD among others. But it is not ideal, because the impact of
changes in taxes on demand and therefore output is generally smaller
than the impact of a change in government spending, because some of
any tax increase comes from reduced saving. (This is also true, but
perhaps to a lesser extent, of government transfers.)
There is no simple
way of dealing with this measurement problem, because the amount of
any tax increase people will find from their savings will depend in part on how long they
expect taxes to be higher. As a result, some people prefer to focus just
on government spending to measure fiscal impact (although the data
you will easily find is government consumption, and as fiscal
consolidation normally involves cuts to government investment it is
important to add that on). However it is also possible to apply some
simple average propensities to consume from tax cuts and transfers to
get a fiscal impact measure.
This is what the
Hutchins Center fiscal impact measure
does for the US.
These are not
multipliers (so are different from what the OBR does for the UK, for
example [1]), but just the direct impact of government spending and
taxes on aggregate demand and hence GDP. The average total impact is
something like 0.4%, so this would be fiscal policy that was in this
sense neutral.
Compare the mild
2001 recession with the much larger 2008/9 recession. In both cases
during the recession fiscal policy was strongly counter-cyclical,
helping to reduce the recession’s impact. After the 2001 recession
ended, fiscal policy continued to support the recovery for around two
years: these were the Bush tax cuts. The recovery in GDP was
reasonably strong: growth from 2003 to 2005 of 2.8%, 3.8% and 3.3%.
In 2010, we had a
much deeper and longer recession, but the fiscal support was only
marginally greater than 2001, despite interest rates being stuck at
their lower bound. On this occasion fiscal support was strongly
opposed by the Republicans. It continued for another year and a
quarter, and then became strongly contractionary from 2011 to 2015.
GDP growth was slower than in the previous recovery, despite
the deeper recession: from 2010 to 2014 2.5%, 1.6%, 2.2%, 1.7%,
2.4%. This is not surprising, as fiscal policy was reducing GDP by
around 1% during 2011,2012 and 2013, rather than adding the normal 0.4%.
The speed and extent
to which austerity was applied after the Great Recession was very
unusual: the textbook says secure the recovery first, allow interest
rates to rise, and then worry about government debt. There was no
economic justification for switching to austerity so quickly after
2010: the motivation (as in the UK) was entirely political. It
produced the slowest US recovery in output since WWII. (This
is a very useful resource in comparing US upswings.) As I showed
here
using simple calculations, if total government spending from 2011 had
remained neutral instead of becoming sharply contractionary, US
output could easily have got close to capacity (as measured by the
CBO) by 2013.
To subtract 1.5%
from GDP would not matter if something (consumption, investment or
net exports) filled its place. But that will only happen by chance or
because of a monetary policy stimulus, and monetary policy was stuck
in a liquidity trap. This is the real crime of austerity. Decreasing
demand and output just when the economy is beginning its recovery
from the deepest recession since WWII is as foolish as it sounds, but
to do this at just the time that monetary policy was unable to
effectively fight back is macroeconomic madness. As I will argue in
later posts, it looks increasingly likely that this has made us all
permanently poorer.
[1] If somebody
publishes similar estimates for the UK, please let me know.
Personally I think it makes more sense to publish data like this than
use a multiplier based analysis, simply because these measures are
more direct, and involve fewer ‘whole economy’ assumptions.
Crucially, there are no implicit assumptions about monetary policy
being made. It would be interesting to know why the OBR decided not
to take this approach.
We all know that cutting £1 from government spending in one place does not necessarily cut £1 from the deficit (because other elements of government spending may rise as a result, or taxes may fall) but does anybody know of any good empirical measures of that relationship for the UK since 2007? i.e. how many £ of cuts were needed to reduce the deficit by £1?
ReplyDeleteI recognise that's quite a difficult concept to capture because it's a dynamic problem, but still, maybe there is some imperfect way of getting at it.
(possibly disagreeing with Simon, I think austerity best defined as cuts to public spending intended to reduce a deficit - where, crucially, 'cuts' does not refer to an aggregate but to line items of the budget)