For macroeconomists
We often see graphs relating fiscal consolidation to output growth
since the Great Recession. Despite such scatter plots being
very weak evidence, they appear to show that fiscal multipliers in
the periphery countries like Greece have been very large indeed. At
first sight this is not difficult to explain. These countries do not
have their own monetary policies, and to the extent that fiscal
consolidation reduces local inflation, real interest rates will rise,
which increases the fiscal multiplier.
Unfortunately the basic New Keynesian (NK) model suggests this
reasoning is incorrect, as Farhi and Werning show
for temporary changes in government spending. While real rates might rise in
the short run following a negative government spending shock, being
in a monetary union ties down the long run price level in these
economies. So, other things being equal, a negative government
spending shock that reduces inflation now will be followed by higher
inflation (compared to the no shock case) later, as the real exchange
rate self-corrects. That in turn means that fiscal consolidation in
the form of temporary cuts to government spending will produce a
small rise in consumption for a period after the shock.
(Consumption depends on the forward sum of future real interest
rates, so as time progresses lower future rates dominate this sum.)
Of course that may simply mean that the basic NK model is incorrect
or incomplete. As Farhi and Werning show in the same paper, with some
credit constrained consumers we can get back to positive short term
consumption multipliers, and therefore output multipliers greater
than one. But it occurred to me, just before I was about to discuss
this paper in an advanced macro graduate class, that the basic NK
model could still give us what appeared to be large
multipliers without such additions.
What we had in periphery countries was not just a government spending
shock. In Ireland and Greece at least, that spending shock was
preceded by a government debt shock. Either the government admitted
to borrowing more than the official data suggested, or it had to bail
out the banks. We can think of at least two types of response to a
pure government debt shock. It could lead to a short sharp
contraction in spending, in which case the analysis of Farhi and
Werning would apply. Alternatively the government accepts that its
debt will be permanently higher, and it only plans to cut spending or
raise taxes to pay the interest on that additional debt.
In the latter case, assume that a significant proportion of that
extra debt was owned overseas. We would have a permanent transfer
from domestic to overseas citizens, and that would require a
permanent depreciation in the real exchange rate. An increase in
competitiveness is needed to make up for the permanently lower level
of domestic demand that these transfers would produce. That in itself
produces a terms of trade loss that impacts on consumption. But in
addition in a monetary union, that depreciation would have to come
about through a period of lower inflation, which would lead to a
period in which real interest rates were higher. That in turn would
decrease consumption, with the peak effect when the debt shock
happened.
This is probably already written down somewhere, but it does explain
why you could get apparently large multipliers in Greece and Ireland
even if the simple NK model was broadly correct. What we had was a
combination of a negative government spending shock and a positive
government debt shock, and the latter could have led to significant
falls in consumption. For these economies at least, true government
spending multipliers may not be as large as they appear.
There I go again, choosing my economics to get the answer I want. Oh,
wait ….