Or is economics
inherently right wing?
I noted in passing in an earlier post that Pareto efficiency was
obviously not a value free criteria. So those who argue that economists should
only look for Pareto improvements – changes where no one is made worse off –
are making a value judgement. One, and only one, of its implicit normative assumptions
is that inequality does not matter. For others see, for example, Elizabeth
Anderson (pdf, HT Anon). Now you could argue that an assumption
that inequality does not matter intrinsically is at least internally consistent
with the conventional assumption that personal utility depends only on personal
variables. However as that assumption is clearly incorrect, this is a rather
weak defence.
(You could also reasonably argue that Pareto improving
increases in inequality could have a negative impact on the personal variables
of others that conventional economic analysis ignores. So, for example, rising
incomes of the 1% - even if this initially comes from just increasing the size
of the pie - allows
that 1% greater political power, which they will subsequently use to
redistribute income away from the 99%.)
This is hardly a new point. For just two recent examples of
other posts saying the same thing: Richard Serlin here, and Ingrid Robeyns here. It only has to keep being said because
too many students are taught that economists like the Pareto criteria because
it is value free. One of the comments to that second post says that the task should not be to “import
liberal or left-wing moral philosophy into economics. It’s to scrub right-wing,
libertarian moral philosophy out of it.” Well, in my usual moderate manner, I’d
say we should at least expose it.
A more sophisticated defence of Pareto optimality is the second
welfare theorem, which says that we can separate issues of distribution
from issues of allocative efficiency. So, if some Pareto improving measure only
makes the 1% better off, we can go ahead with it and deal with any reduction in
social welfare generated by additional inequality using lump sum transfers. One
obvious problem with this idea is that there are no lump sum transfers. Another
is that we do not as a society decide at some date every year what the optimal
distribution of income to implement is. In practice the only chance of
reversing any inequality created by a Pareto improving measure is to use
compensation alongside that measure, but then agents will recognise this
connection which in turn will influence incentives.
The only possibly original point I wanted to make here is that
the absurdity of restricting policies to Pareto improvements becomes
immediately apparent if we think about government debt. Measures to reduce
currently high levels of debt will almost certainly make current generations
worse off, because they will have to pay the taxes (or whatever) to get debt
down. Yet I do not often hear people arguing that we have to let debt stay high
because the government can only implement Pareto improvements. If you think
about it for a second, restricting government debt policy to Pareto
improvements would be a sure fire recipe for deficit
bias.
While this may be obvious, textbooks still make a big deal of
dynamic inefficiency. This is the idea that the amount of productive capital in
society can be too high, so that too much output is going to preserving that
level of capital (replacement investment to offset depreciation etc), and not enough to consumption.
If that is true, then if the current generation saves less, everyone can be
made better off. Government intervention to discouraging saving would be a
Pareto improvement: the current generation consumes more because they save
less, but future generations consume more because less output needs to go to
replacement investment.
The symmetrical case is where there is too little capital,
which also reduces long run consumption compared to what could be achieved. Yet
the implication in many textbooks is that this case is not one we should worry
about, because to change it (by raising saving) would make the current
generation worse off and is therefore not a Pareto improvement. The discussion
in Romer, for example, is all about whether
economies are dynamically inefficient rather than sub-optimally small. We don’t
think this way about government debt, so why should we when it comes to
productive capital?
Why is there this emphasis on only looking at Pareto
improvements? I think you would have to work quite hard to argue that it was
intrinsic to economic theory - it would be, and is, quite possible to do
economics without it. (Many economists use social welfare functions.) But one
thing that is intrinsic to economic theory is the diminishing
marginal utility of consumption. Couple that with the idea of
representative agents that macro uses all the time (who share the same
preferences), and you have a natural bias
towards equality. Focusing just on Pareto improvements neutralises that
possibility. Now I mention this not to imply that the emphasis put on Pareto
improvements in textbooks and elsewhere is a right wing plot - I do not know
enough to argue that. But it should make those (mainstream or heterodox) who believe that
economics is inherently conservative pause for thought.

